redsales: Why would it need to?

Dice are "programmed" to give a 6 in 1/6 rolls but the pattern of 6s in the stream is entirely random. Over the long term, though, the 1/6 can be verified.

The slot machines have their own percentages which can be verified over the long term as well, but at any one moment the machine may be ahead or behind its quota. On what basis would it make it more or less likely to roll a winner given that it "knows" that all will come out in the end if it leaves well enough alone?

On the other hand is this the "looseness" and "tightness" that the article was talking about, where the machine ups and downs the odds for some reasons (that I don't understand yet)?

Edit: Ah, I've reread the article; I'll answer my own question. The looseness and tightness is an observation and perception of the winning pattern and not something generated knowingly by the machine.