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21. May 2004, 09:09:42 Subject: Just to make sure I understand this right. In 1 of my games I have all but 2 of my men in home. My last two are close but on same spot. I roll a 3-6. I could have moves the 3 with 1 of my men in home but then would not have been able to move the 6 cause my oppent has that spot covered. If I would have done it that way it would have been said that I was cheating for not using both dice right? If that is so then I'm glad I did not do it that way... 21. May 2004, 14:28:03 Subject: Re: Just to make sure  if you were able to move the 6 and moved the 3 instead .. than that move would be in poor taste.... but since there was no move available for the 6 then only thing you could do is move the 3 .. which is a legal move... 21. May 2004, 15:05:14 Subject: Re: Just to make sure I dont get the cheating question iou...
There is no way to cheat in backgammon, as there are no moves 'in poor taste" as Sharon contends... What am I missing here? Are you trying to say that "swapping the dice" is somehow cheating or in poor taste? 21. May 2004, 15:11:28 Subject: Re: Just to make sure the dice here do not support one of the basic rules in backgammon about use of the dice when only one can be moved... some people consider it cheating.. others consider it legal because this site supports it... i try to play according to the rules... 21. May 2004, 15:18:12 Subject: Re: Just to make sure I am not familiar with that rule....what does it state?
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